A heated discussion about what it means by Jesus became sin. This was my response to the discussion.
This discussion is like one over the word impute. As when Abraham believed God and that belief was imputed to Abraham for righteousness. Was the righteousness of Abraham real? Was it his or just a word game that righteousness rested on him but really wasn’t a part of him? Jesus on the cross had the sin(s) of the world imputed to him. If Jesus, who knew no sin, was given the sin, and he embraced it for his own, then when he died on the cross those sins were actually paid for. So was the sin his or not his? When you agree to take on the debt of another person do you not become the debtor? It is a game of semantics that can become very dangerous in its final outcome. As I see this thread going…
Regardless of what impute means, I thank God for the sacrifice that Jesus made to pay for the sin(s).
🙂
Where is the blasphemy?
A further response dated 22 March, 2005
I say with Isaiah 53:6 All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.
Sounds to me that our sins were imputed to Jesus. If the word of God says that the iniquity of us all has been laid on Jesus… and I agree with that statement, how could I be wrong? You mentioned 1st Peter… but only one who is pure and not stained with iniquity can take on our sins (or as 1st Peter 2:24 writes “bore our sins in his body“) to pay for them. Everyone else dies because of their own sin. You mentioned 2 John… but that has to do with; following his commandment to love and to believe that Jesus came in the flesh.
Your response does not answer my question… “When you agree to take on the debt of another person do you not become the debtor?”
🙂